Definition of Redemption: the action of either purchasing or regaining possession of something in exchange for payment.
What if God had declared a commandment to the Jews saying, “Thou shalt not purchase a Gentile for any reason”, what would that have accomplished? For one thing, it would have abolished the ability for any Hebrew to purchase a foreign slave. But before you begin cheering, you must also consider this: It would have made Gentiles nonredeemable. The purchase of Gentiles would have been outlawed. The declaration of the Apostle Paul saying, “You are not your own, you have been bought with a price” would be meaningless for Gentiles. As it turns out, God did not declare the purchase of Gentiles to be illegal. He did the exact opposite. He uttered a law which made it legal for Jesus to specifically purchase Gentiles with His blood. The blood of Christ was not metaphorical, and neither was our purchase.
Before we look at the scriptural basis for Gentile purchase/redemption, let me ask you a few leading questions about Christ’s crucifixion on Mount Calvary:
What is the scriptural basis for Christ becoming a “curse for us” on Calvary? According to Galatians 3:13, it was through the law in Deuteronomy 21:23 which basically said, “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree”. This law authorized Christ to be a curse for us on Calvary.
What is the scriptural basis for Christ being the perfect sacrificial lamb for us on Calvary? It was through the Old Testament laws describing the requirements for a passover lamb. He was without spot or blemish, and He fit the mold. The law authorized Christ to be our passover lamb on Calvary.
What is the scriptural basis for Christ being able to redeem/purchase Gentile strangers on Calvary? It was an Old Testament slavery law which enabled a Jew to purchase a Gentile stranger for His own possession. This particular law authorized Christ to be our Redeemer on Calvary. It is the only law that authorizes a Jew to directly purchase/redeem a Gentile stranger.
Do you see the pattern? Why am I asking these questions? It is to show that the work that was accomplished by Christ on Calvary was in accordance with the Old Testament laws of God. The work done by Christ on Calvary had its authorization in Old Testament laws. Christ only did what the Father enabled Him to do .
So, what is the actual scriptural basis for Gentile redemption/purchase? What Old Testament law did God recognize that enabled Christ to purchase Gentile strangers on Calvary?
“Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life”—God speaking to Moses in Leviticus 25: 44-46
Christ fulfilled the eternal purpose of God’s laws and He bought us through a law of slavery. Just like the law which enabled Christ to be a curse for us on Calvary, just like the laws that enabled Christ to be our passover lamb on Calvary, this is the only law that enabled Christ to be the redeemer of Gentiles on Calvary.
Concerning Gentiles, Galatians 3 tells us that it is in Christ Jesus that the blessing of Abraham might come to the Gentiles, so that we would receive the promise of the Spirit through faith. In light of this, what did Jesus do to ensure that Gentile strangers would also receive the blessing of Abraham? He purchased them. Scriptures say that you are purchased:
“You are not your own. you were bought at a price. Therefore honor God with your bodies.”
“You were bought at a price; do not become slaves of human beings.”
“you (Jesus) were slain, and with your blood you purchased for God persons from every tribe and language and people and nation”. (Not just Jews, but ALL Gentile people were purchased)
“You were bought, not with corruptible things, with silver and gold, from your vain manner of life handed down from your fathers; but with the precious blood of Christ, as a lamb without blemish or without spot, even the blood of Christ.”
Do you believe Paul when he says that Christ really bought your physical body, or do you think it is all just a bunch of hyperbole? Do you think the price of Christ’s blood is hyperbole? It was a real price for a real purchase. It wasn’t a partial purchase of soul/spirit only, it was a complete redemption that includes your physical body.
But what about the laws that allowed Ruth the Moabite to be redeemed by Boaz? Although Ruth was born a Gentile, she came under Jewish identity as the widow of a Jewish man named Mahlon, who was a relative of Boaz. As Gentile strangers, we weren’t ever seen by God as being “married to Jews”. The qualifications for a Kinsman-Redeemer like Boaz insist that you must be related (Leviticus 25:47-49). The laws of a Kinsman-Redeemer would only work in a purchase between Jesus and his fellow Jews, but they would not apply to the Gentiles nations. Listen. the Bible is very clear that Gentiles are total aliens and cannot participate under the Kinsman-Redeemer (Boaz) rules. Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands— 12remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.–Ephesians 2:11-12. God isn’t playing around. It is clear that we Gentiles were strangers and didn’t have the association that was afforded to Ruth. We had to have another law enabling us to be redeemed.
Think about this: What other law proclaimed by God could give the Apostle Peter the authorization to graphically and distinctly describe Christ as the “Master who bought them”–2 Peter 2:1? Is that how you would address a relative? A Kinsman-Redeemer? I think not. (If your version of the bible says “Lord”, you need to understand that the Greek word is “despotes” which is where we get the word “despot”.) The basis for authoritatively calling Jesus a “Master who bought them” comes through the laws that allowed Jews to purchase people for their own possession. God authorized a way for Gentiles to be redeemed through the much-hated, highly-neglected, and seldom-preached laws of slavery. Christ bought you, owns you, and now you belong to Him.
Now that we are bought, we move into sonship. So you are no longer a slave, but God’s child; and since you are his child, God has made you also an heir.–Galatians 4:7. Yet, we were bought first before we were born again.
Nevertheless, the Church of today prefers to shun and ignore the slavery passages in Leviticus 25. Because of our pain and our history of abuse, we are unable to view them in an objective, non-volatile manner. However, by neglecting these passages, we neglect understanding our own redemption and what really happened. We are building houses without laying the basis of foundation.
What difference does it make? Why bother? Why concern ourselves with this bit? Don’t we have bigger fish to fry? I’ll remind you again that the Apostle Peter used strong words to prophesy that teachers would arise who refuse to affirm the identity of Jesus as the “Master who bought them”–2 Peter 2:1. That alone should cause us to ask questions.
If you have questions, if you are a thinking person, and if you truly care about the things that God says in scripture, then you really need to read the previous post: